POSTAL GUIDES- GATEWAY TO SUCCESS : Previous Year Question Paper - PM Cadre I Examination Date 29.05.2011 Question No 1 to 125

Previous year question paper - PM Cadre I Exam 29.05.211

1. E-IOD (e-Intimation of Delivery) service is available for customers of:

(A) Speed Post Service

(B) Bulk customers registering themselves for the service

(D) Speed Post Service wanting ‘Addressee Specific’ delivery

2. The treatment given to an international parcel in theevent of non-delivery is dependent upon:

(A) Sender’s instructions

(B) Weight of parcel

(D) All the above

3. What is the maximum permissible weight for a packet in the category “Literature for the Blind”?:

(A) 7 Kg (B) 10 Kg (C) 10 pounds (D) 2 Kg

4. Documentation in Form CN-23 accompanying international mail articles serves the purpose of:

(A) Despatch Note (B) Customs declaration (C) Statement of charges (D) Report in respect of irregularities

5. Mark the incorrect option:

(A) The special registration envelopes provided by the Post Office cannot be used for the transmission of unregistered article

(B) Reuse of a stamp that has already been used for payment of postage or postal fee is an offence under the Indian Penal Code

(D) Postage stamps which have been cut and separated from embossed envelopes or postcards can be used in payment of postage

6. Mark the correct option:

(A) The weight of privately manufactured letter card should not exceed 3 gram

(B) The weight of letter should not exceed 4 kg

(D) The weight of book packet should not exceed 2 kg

7. What is the main function of a Sub Foreign Post Office?:

(A) To send direct bags to foreign countries

(B) To enable senders/addressees to present documents etc for the dispatch or release of their international articles

(D) To expedite the transmission of international mail

8. S.A.L. refers to:

(A) Superior Air Liability

(B) Surface Air Lifted Mail

(D) Special Airmail Logistics

9. Mark the correct option.

The Indian Post Office is exempted by law from all responsibility in the case of:

(A) Loss, misdelivery or delay of registered article in course of transmission by post

(B) Wrong payment of inland money order

(D) Wrong delivery of insured parcel

10. The loss of a Speed Post article should be reported to the Police through FIR if the value of the contents of the article is:

(A) ` 2500/- or more

(B) ` 4,000/- or more

(D) ` 10,000/- or more

11. Who will write orders for remittance cash to a Sub Office on daily account received?:

(A) Sub account assistant

(B) Assistant Postmaster

(D) Head Postmaster

12. Mark the correct statement:

(A) In Head Post Office, the Sub Account Assistant should see that all the SPM’s monthly reports from

Sub Offices, are received on last working day of the month

(B) The SPM’s monthly reports should be signed and stamped by the Sub Account Assistant on the date of receipt and made over to the Head Postmaster

instructions, if any, to the SPM concerned

(D) None of the above

13. Who will transfer the account bag with enclosed sealed cash bag for dispatch to Sub Office to the

Sorting / Mail Department?

(A) Delivery Assistant

(B) Treasurer

(D) Packer of the branch

14. What action will be taken if any document attached to a daily account is inadmissible on account of any irregularity in its preparation or is not duly authenticated?

(A) The document should be returned for rectifications and may be admitted on receipt of rectified document

(B) The item should be disallowed and case be reported to Superintendent of Post Offices or Inspector Posts

(C) A revised document should be called for or the document should be returned for rectification but the item to which it relates should be admitted and included in the accounts of the account office as

usual

(D) A revised document should be called for and the item should be charged under the head of unclassified receipts or payment

15. The Order Book of a Record Office:

(A) Is a permanent record and should not be destroyed at all

(B) May be destroyed as usual after expiry of the preservation period

(D) May not be destroyed without the special permission of Head of the Circle / Region

16. The present system of bag accounting was introduced with the object of:

(A) Cutting down the circulation of empty bags to the minimum possible

(B) Ensuring adequate working stock of bags in each office

(D) All above

17. Which of the following documents of IPOs are submitted from HO to Postal Accounts on 1st of each month:

(A) List of IPO sold

(B) Spoiled Postal Order

(D) All of the above

18. The seals, cords, labels and bags required to be preserved in connection with investigation into a case of loss or abstraction in the RMS should be preserved in the personal custody of the:

(A) Head Sorting Assistant

(B) Record Officer

(D) Superintendent

19. Closing an Air mail bags will be justified when the number of articles to be included in the bag is:

(A) More than 75

(B) More than 100

(D) More than 250

20. Which of the following action is required to be taken if a MO is lost after payment in SO and entries filled in form memo of admission of payment MO-10(a) from 1 to 6 is received in SO:

(A) Memo of admission of payment after filling the entries in column 7 and obtaining the signature of payee and impression of oblong MO stamp should be forwarded to head office

(B) HO will forward the memo of admission of payment to Postal Accounts Office in support of charge in the list of MO paid

the payee’s signature the case should be reported to

Superintendent of Post Offices through the HO

(D) All above actions

21. The Inward Correspondence Register concerning

Public Complaints maintained in Record Offices in the

Selection Grade should be checked personally by the

Record Officer or the Officer authorised in this behalf:

(A) Daily

(B) One in a week

(D) Once in a month

22. Which of the following documents of IPO should be

submitted from HO to Postal Accounts Office on Ist of

each month if no sales appear in the accounts of HO

during the month and HO has received authority to

write missing orders off the stock book:

(A) Memorandum of unsold IPOs in stock

(B) Missing Postal Order

(D) All above

23. Mark the correct option.

Who is the competent authority empowered to raise

the limit amount (subject to prior consultation with

police) to be entrusted to any single postman at one

time for payment of MOs:

(A) SSPOs of the Division

(B) Director Postal Services of the Region

(D) Head of the Circle

24. Mark the correct option.

Upto what amount can SSPOs raise the limit of

aggregate amount to be entrusted to any single

Postman at one time for payment of MOs:

(A) Rs. 40,000/- (B) Rs. 50,000/-

25. While selecting the Post Offices for conducting the All

India Mail Survey or Live Mail Survey:

(A) 25% of the post offices selected should be in rural areas

(B) 33% of the post offices selected should be in rural areas

(D) Selection of any rural post office is not mandatory

26. Register of Sanctioned Establishment should be

destroyed at the end of:

(A) The year after issue of new one

(B) Two years after issue of new one

(D) Five years after issue of new one

27. Mark the correct option.

In case when a MO is issued during last few days of

March in Sub Post Office, the date stamp of which

month should be impressed on MO:

(A) The month stamp for the month of March instead of

April should be impressed

(B) The month stamp of latter month viz April should be

impressed on MO

(D) None of above

28. Mark the correct option.

If the remitter of a MO that has not been paid desires

to change the name of payee, which of the following

documents are not required to be produced by him to

issuing Postmaster:

(A) Proof of his identity

(B) Original MO receipt granted to him

stamps in payment of second MO commission must

be affixed

(D) Written application to Postmaster along with cash in

lieu of second commission

29. In which one of the following forms, summary of total

of MOs issued and paid and those of its SOs are

prepared by HO for submission to Home Postal

Account Office:

(A) MO-17 and MO-18 respectively

(B) MO-15 and MO-16 respectively

(D) None of above

30. A Sorting Assistant may be ordered to attend theRecord Office for practice sorting by the:

(A) Superintendent (B) Inspector

31. Physical verification of bags should be done by every Unit Bag Office, District Bag Office and Administrative Office on the 1

(A) Each month (B) January, April, July & October

32. While conducting All India Mail Survey or Live Mail Survey, the total mail to be studied in the Post Office selected for the survey should be at least:

(A) 10% of the articles received in the P.O

(B) 25% of the articles received in the P.O

(D) 75% of the articles received in the P.O

of:

33. Mark the correct statement:

(A) The period of currency of MO expires after expiry of

seven days of issue

(B) The period of currency expires after expiry of fourteen

days of issue

month of issue

(D) The period of currency of MO expires on close of the

last day of the month following the month of issue

34. The minimum number of bags which a Unit Bag Office will be authorised to keep will generally be equal to the number of bags required for despatch for the day plus:

(A) 10% (B) 20%

35. A register of repairable bags will be maintained in every:

(A) Unit Bag Office (B) District bag office

36. Whoever, being required by IPO Act 1898 to make a declaration in respect of any postal article to be sent by post or the content or value thereof, make in his declaration any statement which he knows, or has reason to believe, to be false, or does not believe to be true, shall be punishable under Section 64 of the said act:

(A) With fine which may extend to two hundred rupees

(B) With imprisonment for a term which may extend to six

months

months, or with fine which may extend to one

hundred rupees

(D) None of the above option is correct

37. In proceedings under IPO Act 1898 for recovery of any postage or other sum alleged to be due in respect of a postal article:

(A) The presence of an officer of the Post office concerned

shall be prima facie evidence under the said Act

(B) The presence of an official of the Post Office

concerned shall be prima facie evidence under the

said Act

the official mark of the post office denoting that the

article has been refused or that the addressee is

dead or cannot be found, shall be prima facie

evidence under the said Act

(D) The statement under (A) & (B) above is correct

38. Any postal article sent by post in contravention of the provision of Section 19 or 19-A of Indian Post Office Act 1898 may be opened and destroyed if necessary under the authority of -

(A) The officer incharge of the Post office

(B) The Divisional Superintendent

(D) None of the authorities mentioned in (A) (B) or (C)

above

39. No person shall send by post:

(A) Any postal article having thereon, or on the cover

thereof any words, marks

(B) Any postal article having thereon designs of an

indecent, obscene, seditious character

threatening or grossly offensive character

(D) The options under (B) & (C) above are correct

40. The Central Government may, by notification in the official Gazette, direct that, subject to other provisions of IPO Act 1898 and to the payment of fees at such rates as may be fixed by the notification, a sum of money specified in writing at the time of posting by the sender of a postal article shall be recoverable on the delivery thereof from the addressee, shall be paid to the sender, the postal article sent with such provisions may be described as:

(A) Registered postal article (B) Money order

41. The rates of inland postage:

(A) May be fixed by Director General (Posts) by issue of

DG circular

(B) May be fixed by the Ministry of Communication and

IT by issue of orders

notification in official Gazette

(D) None of above is correct

42. Any postal article suspected to contain any goods of which the transmission by post is prohibited by or under any enactment for the time being in force is received for delivery at a post office:

(A) That post office will deliver the article to the addressee without any interference

(B) The officer incharge of the post office will issue notice to the addressee inviting him to attend post office and shall in his presence open and examine the postal articles

(D) The officer incharge shall send the postal article to RLO for disposal

43. In HO the total amount of the collection of unpaid / insufficiently paid articles paid to treasurer will be transferred to HO summary against the item:

(A) Postage realized in cash

(B) Postage realized on articles of letter mail delivered

(D) None of the above

44. Mark the incorrect statement:

(A) Mail bags intended for dispatch during working hours of the day should be secured by the mail assistant in the mail box

(B) The forward bags should be kept locked up in the mail box until it is time to dispatch them

(D) BO bags and loose account bags should be transferred to Sub Account Assistant

45. Mark the incorrect statement:

(A) The postmaster should occasionally examine the paid contents of some of the mail bags opened in order to detect error in sorting

B) The Postmaster should occasionally be present when station mail bags are opened

ascertain unnecessary detention

(D) The Postmaster should occasionally examine the contents of Registered bags opened

46. Schedule of unclassified payments and receipts is submitted by Head Post Office to Director of Accounts Postal) on: st

(A) 1

St:

(B) 1

(D) 1

47. Mark the correct option.

When iMO Issue is between 20001 to 25000 what

commission will be collected from remitter:

(A) Rs. 210 (B) Rs. 230

48. Mark the correct option.

NRI can open any type of account under Post Office Savings Bank Scheme:

(A) In his own name

(B) Jointly with other

D) None of above

49. Mark the correct option.

On encashment of Savings certificates at the Post

Office other than the Post Office of issue, the payment

shall be made:

(A) Through crossed cheque if the payment is Rs.

20,000/- or more

(B) By crediting in the PO Savings Account of the

concerned holder

holder

(D) Through crossed cheque irrespective of amount of

payment

50. Mark the correct option.

On 1.4.2010, ‘A’ has opened two P.O. Savings

Accounts viz. one in his own name and another jointly

with his wife depositing Rs. 1 Lac in each account. No

withdrawal was made within a year. How much interest

‘A’ will get in both the accounts:

(A) Rs. 5,250/-

(B) Rs. 10,500/-

(D) Rs. 3,500/-

of each month

and 16

of each month

and 10

of each month

and 12

of each month

51. Mark the correct statement:

(A) A withdrawal in a PPF account can be refunded in not

more than 36 monthly installments:

(B) Interest on withdrawal taken from a PPF account is

one percent above the rate of interest admissible on

PPF subscription

withdrawal with interest thereon

(D) The amount of withdrawals in a PPF Account is not

repayable

52. Mark the correct option.

Sub Postmaster has to prepare and submit the yearly

list of unsold certificates on the due date every year.

At the end of this statement SPM has to endorse a

certificate to the effect that:

(A) Entries are made and balances are shown correctly

(B) All stocks of invoices have been correctly taken into

account

hand on 31

(D) No such certificate has been prescribed

53. Mark the correct statement.

The RD Accounts is treated as discontinued if there

are more than:

(A) 4 defaults (B) 5 defaults

54. Mark the incorrect statement:

(A) RD account can be extended for a period of 5 years

after the date of maturity

(B) The maturity value can be retained for a period of 5

years after the date of maturity

(D) Both the statements at (A) & (B) above are wrong

55. Mark the correct statement.

(A) Second withdrawal in a PPF account is payable in the

next financial year of the year in which principal and

interest on first withdrawal has been fully refunded

and other conditions fulfill

(B) Second loan is permissible in the financial year in

which 1

recovered provided the 1

same year and other conditions fulfill

if first loan taken in the year has been refunded

alongwith interest thereon and other conditions fulfill

(D) None of the above is correct

56. Mark the correct option.

Kisan Vikas Patras purchased by the trust on

12.05.2005, if encashed after two months after the date

of maturity, shall be entitled to:

(A) Maturity value plus Post maturity interest

(B) Maturity value only

(D) Amount invested and interest admissible for Savings

Account

of March tallies with that shown in the stock

loan and interest thereon has been

loan was not taken in the

57. Mark the correct option.

In which of the following cases a certificate “Certified

that the amount sought to be withdrawn is required for

the use of Shri/Km........................ who is minor and

alive this day” must be furnished:

(A) If the guardian wishes to withdraw the money from an

account opened on behalf of a minor

(B) When the withdrawal is made from an account

opened on behalf of a minor for the purpose of

investing in saving certificate in the name of the minor

minor himself or herself

(D) When withdrawal is to be made by an ex-minor

58. Mark the correct option.

The deposits made in MIS account shall bear 8%

interest per annum for the accounts opened on or after:

(A) 1

(B) 1

(D) 1

January, 2001

March, 2002

January, 2003

March, 2003

59. Mark the correct statement:

(A) Joint ‘B’ type accounts can be transferred by either of

the depositors

(B) Joint ‘A’ type account can be transferred under the

signature of both / all the depositors only. This

condition is not applicable for Joint ‘B’ type accounts

application for transfer is required to be signed by all

the depositors

(D) None of above statement is correct

60. Mark the correct option.

The Savings Bank Postal Assistant at the instant counter

passes the following transactions to the supervisor:

(A) Every transaction of opening of new account

(B) Every deposit / withdrawal in cheque account

(D) When pass book with counterfoil is presented for

adding the transaction of deposit made by cheque

61. Mark the correct option.

When account is to be transferred from one Sub Post

Office to another Sub Post Office of the same Head

Post Office, after completing prescribed procedure at

Head Post Office, the entry is to be made in the:

(A) Journal of transfer SB-2(a)

(B) Journal of accounts opened on transfer SB-2(a)

(D) Register of ATs received and transferred

62. Mark the correct option:

(A) In PPF account a subscriber can deposit the

defaulted subscription in any year by paying default

fee of Rs. 50/- for each year of default. The

subscription should be limited to Rs. 500/- only:

(B) In PPF account a subscriber can deposit the

subscription within one year following the year of

default by paying default fee of Rs. 50/-. The

subscription may be from minimum of Rs. 500/- to

and maximum 70,000/-

minimum subscription of Rs. 500/- and maximum Rs.

70,000/- plus the default fee of Rs. 50/- for a year of

default, subject to the condition that the total deposit

for the year of which defaulted subscription is

deposited should not exceed the maximum deposit

ceiling of Rs. 70,000/- including the subscription for

the defaulted period

(D) A subscriber may deposit the minimum subscription

of Rs. 500/- plus the default fee of Rs. 50/- for each

year of default, subject to the condition that the total

deposit during the year in which defaulted

subscription is deposited, should not exceed the

maximum deposit ceiling of Rs. 70,000/-

63. Mark the correct option.

In a PPF account opened on 1.2.2009:

(A) 1

(B) Loan as on 1.4.2010 shall be admissible limited to

25% balance as on 31.3.2010

01.02.2015

(D) Subscriber can take second loan on 1.4.2011 without

repaying earlier loan

64. Mark the correct statement:

(A) NC-69A form is prescribed for purchase of KVPs. If

the KVPs are purchased through agent the remark

“through agent” will be inserted on the top of the form

(B) NC-69 AI form is used for KVPs purchased through

SAS Agent

(D) Both the statements at (A) & (B) are wrong

65. Mark the correct option.

In a joint account opened under Senior Citizen Savings

Scheme, the first person entitled to receive money in

the event of death of depositor shall be:

(A) Joint holder

(B) Legal heir

(D) Either (A), (B), (C) above

loan can be taken on 1.4.2010

66. Mark the incorrect statement:

(A) PPF account continued with deposits can be left

without deposits on completion of the extended block

period of 5 years

(B) In an extended block period of 5 years one

withdrawal is allowed every year and total 5

withdrawals are allowed subject to the condition that

the total of withdrawals made during the said block

shall not exceed 60% of balance at his credit at the

commencement of the said period

account in an extended block period of 5 years

(D) A PPF account can be closed after expiring of 15

financial years from the end of the year in which the

account was opened

67. Mark the correct option.

Interest on SCSS accounts closed before maturity:

(A) Would be payable upto the end of the month

preceeding the month in which the account is closed

(B) Would be payable upto the date preceeding the date

on which the account is closed

preceeding the quarter in which account is closed

(D) No interest is allowed on premature closure of the

SCSS accounts

68. Mark the correct statement

In GDS Branch Post Office:

(A) When a Pass Book of Post Office Savings Account is

presented after 31

interest is not added should be retained giving

depositor a receipt in SB-28

(B) Every Pass Book presented after 31

purpose should be retained giving depositor a receipt

in SB-28

transaction or for any purpose must be retained and

forwarded to Account Office / Head Post Office

(D) No pass books are required to be sent by the GDS

Offices unless they receive intimation from the

account office

69. Mark the correct option.

A two year TD account of ` 1,00,000/- opened on

01.01.2010 is closed on 01.02.2011, an amount of `

2500/- has been recovered against excess interest

paid. The transaction in the accounts will be shown in

LOT etc., as:

(A) 2 Years TD withdrawal ` 1,00,000/-

Excess paid interest recovered ` 2500/-

(B) 2 Years TD withdrawal ` 1,00,000/-

UCR /Excess paid interest recovered ` 2500/-

Penalty recovered ` 2500/-

(D) 2 Years TD withdrawal ` 97,500/-

Interest on closed account ` 2,500/-

March for any purpose, in which

March for any

70. Mark the incorrect statement:

(A) The accounts opened under NSS-92 can be revived

and closed

(B) Existing NSS-92 accounts are entitled to annual

interest @ Rs. 7.50 percent

same scheme

(D) Declaration in Form 15-G is required to be produced

by Senior Citizen for exemption from TDS

71. Mark the correct statement:

(A) After three years from the date of opening of the RD

accounts part withdrawal can be taken limited to 50%

of balance in the RD account, if the account is

discontinued

(B) No withdrawal is permissible from the discontinued

RD Account

(D) The permission of HO is needed for revival of RD account

72. Mark the correct option.

What are the option available to the PPF subscriber on

maturity of his PPF account:

(A) To close the account

(B) To continue the account with deposits

(D) Either (A), (B) or (C) above

73. Which of the following are not eligible for Postal Life

Insurance:

(A) GraminDak Sewaks

(B) Casual Labourers

(D) Employees of Nationalized Banks

74. For purpose of calculation of age for PLI/RPLI

proposals, age of reckoning is:

(A) Age at next birthday

(B) Age in the year in which policy is taken

(D) Age in the month in which policy is taken

75. Development Officers are paid no incentive for

business:

(A) Upto Rs 2 crores of sum assured

(B) Upto Rs 4 crores of sum assured

(D) Upto Rs 6 crores of sum assured

76. IRDA stands for:

(A) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

(B) Insurance Regulation and Development Authority

(D) Insurance Rules and Directives Administrative

77. Under the new incentive structure circulated in 2009 for RPLI,

incentive payable to a person procuring RPLI policies is:

(A) 10% of first year premium income and %

renewal premium income

(B) 10% of sum assured

(D) %

2 of sum assured

78. A Press Sorting Office is:

(A) A RMS Office where the articles received from the

various Presses and publishers are only sorted

(B) A RMS office situated on the premises of a

newspaper publisher

newspaper publisher is sorted and despatched and

where the entire expenditure of the establishment of

the office is borne by the newspaper publisher

(D) A branch of a Sorting Mail Office dealing with articles

from Press / Publishers and Registered newspapers

79. Mark the Correct Option:

From which date, month and year invoices of articles

of stock issued by the depot will be consecutively

numbered to indenting office each year:

(A) Invoices of articles of stock issued by the depot to

indenting office will be consecutively numbered in annual

series commencing with no 1 from 1st January each year

(B) Invoices of articles of stock issued by the depot to

indenting office will be consecutively numbered in annual

series commencing with no. 1 from Ist April of each year

indenting office will not be in consecutively numbered

series

(D) None of above

80. Mark the correct option.

What is the periodicity of supply of hand bags in RMS Wing:

(A) Not less than 5 years (B) Not less than 3 years

81. Which of the following is not a process for

replacement of an article of stock lost or damaged

through the fault of Postal Official and the cost of

which is recovered and credited to Govt. Account:

(A) Indent should be sent by the post office concerned

direct to the stores depot accompanied by full

particulars of certificate of credit by Head Postmaster

(B) Indent for Branch Post Offices under Head Post

Office should be sent by PRI through Postmaster

prepared by Sub Divisional Inspector

(D) None of these

2 of renewal premium income

82. Which of the following offices are not supplied a

Master Schedule in prescribed forms by the Head of

Circle:

(A) Second Class Head Post Office

(B) Supdt. Of PO & RMS

(D) Office of Sub Divisional Inspector

83. Mark the correct option.

Which of the following are treated as contract work:

(A) The work done under agreement

(B) Supply made under agreement in writing and

generally contains stipulation as to be quantity of

work to be done

work or supply is to be completed

(D) All of the above

84. The advantage of a Transit Post Office is that the Post

Office:

(A) Carries out the work of sorting in advance for other

offices

(B) Reduces the weight of mails carried on mail lines

(D) All three i.e. (A), (B) & (C) above

85. Temporary misappropriation of government money

where the amount is made good afterwards and there

is no actual loss to the Government is:

(A) An offence punishable only under the CCS (Conduct)

Rules

(B) An offence punishable under the Indian Post Office Act

trust

(D) Both (A) and (C) above

86. On receipt of information of highway robbery of mails,

the Superintendent should take steps to obtain:

(A) The place from where the mail was last despatched

(B) List of bags prepared in that office at (A) and

particulars of their contents

cash etc., included in the bags from the offices of

posting or despatch

(D) All information noted at (A), (B) and (C)

87. If a Postal or Sorting Assistant finds a registered bundle

bearing signs of damage or tampering, he should note

the irregularity in the error book/note book and then:

(A) Transfer the registered bundle to the Postmaster/HSA

(B) Open the registered bundle

Postmaster / HSA

(D) Open the registered bundle in presence of two witnesses

88. While closing a Registered bag containing cash bag it

should be sealed with:

(A) Date seal (B) Registration seal

89. If an article the registration of which is compulsory but

which has not been registered is received for delivery

in a post office, the addressee will be required to pay:

(A) Double the deficiency in registration fee and postage

(B) Double the deficiency in registration fee plus any

postage due on the article

postage

(D) Amount equal to the deficiency in registration fee plus

double the postage due

90. When an article, on being opened in the office of

delivery is found to contain any intoxicating drugs, the

importation of which is prohibited, it should be:

(A) Sent with all its contents to the nearest Collector of

Customs

(B) Forwarded to the RLO

Office for orders

(D) Made over to the police for further action

91. A damaged article should be returned to the sender

duly protected if its addressee does not attend the

Post office to take its delivery within:

(A) Two days of the date of notice

(B) Three days of the date of notice

(D) Ten days of the date of notice

92. If an article posted in a Sub Post Office and addressed

to a foreign country is found to contain anything the

export of which is prohibited, it should be forwarded

with remark “contains prohibited ........” to the:

(A) Office of exchange (B) R.L.O

93. A bulk bag is defined as:

(A) A special bag of printed papers to/from

addressees/senders in foreign countries

(B) A bag containing the mail posted by the senders in bulk

(D) None of the above

94. The printed papers enclosed in a bulk bag:

(A) Should be of the same addressee at the same address

(B) May be of the same addressee with different addresses

(D) May be of different addressees at different stations

95. Mark the correct option.

The Section entrusted with the maintenance of Annual

Performance Assessment Report (APAR) shall

disclose the same to the officer reported upon. The

Government Servant shall be entitled to make any

representation against the entries and final grading

given in the report, within a period of:

(A) Fifteen days from the date of receipt of notice and APAR

(B) Fifteen days from the date of disclosure

(D) One month from the date of receipt of notice and the APAR

96. Mark the incorrect statement:

(A) In the revised norms fixed for Postman

establishment, multi storied building is defined as

“High rise Building with Four or more storey”

(B) Articles delivered through Post Boxes/Post Bags and

through window of the post office will be excluded

from the purview of delivery of unregistered articles

roads, lanes and bye lanes and distance covered for

entering various houses

(D) Area having a density of population of 2500 per

square km may be taken as congested area

97. Mark the incorrect option

The principles for grant of casual leave are:

(A) Such leave should ordinarily be granted for short

periods not exceeding 5 days at a time

(B) The decision of the competent authority to grant or

not to grant casual leave is subject to revision by the

authority to which such authority is immediate

subordinate

have the discretion either to allow the full period or a

proportion thereof, if the person joins government

Service, in the middle of the session

(D) In Post Offices substitutes may be engaged in place

of Postmen and Group ‘D’ employee who have been

proceeded on casual leave

98. Mark the incorrect option:

Following persons are exempted from the production

of medical certificate of fitness on their first

appointment under Government of India:

(A) Person who is already in employ of the Government

and has already undergone medical examination by a

standard and by a medical authority as equivalent to

those prescribed for the new post of appointment

(B) Retired government Servants reemployed

immediately after retirement

break does not exceed one year, even if the break is

due to medical reasons

(D) A permanent non-gazetted State Government

Servant when appointed to a non-gazetted post

under the Central Government

99. Total number of Post Offices, both Departmental and Extra-Departmental combined, located in rural areas of the country is closest to the figure:

(A) 1.19 lakhs (B) 1.29 lakhs

100. The vigilance set up of the Department of Posts is headed by:

(A) Secretary (Posts)

(B) Member (Personnel)

(D) Secretary, Postal Services Board

101. The Rajya Sabha has done a constitutional amendment and passed the (alteration of name) bill

recently officially altering the name of the State. The state in question referred here is:

(A) Sikkim

(B) Orissa

(D) Jharkhand

102. The first woman army officer who was selected for Gallantry award:

(A) Rekha Singh (B) Anju Bhatia

103. The first woman army officer who was selected for Gallantry award:

(A) Rekha Singh

(B) Anju Bhatia

(D) Mitali Madhumita

104. Kuril Island is under territorial dispute between which countries:

(A) Japan and Russia

(B) South Korea and North Korea

(D) Japan and North Korea

105. Which of the following Countries was affected by cyclone Giri in 2010?

(A) Myanmar (B) Haiti

106. Deputy Speaker Lok Sabha at present is:

(A) Ms. Shusma Swaraj

(B) Mr. Karia Munda

(D) None of these

107. Under Right to Education Bill, the children of which of the following age groups are eligible to get free education:

(A) Upto 5 years

(B) Six to 10 years

(D) Eight to 12 years

108. A two-day summit of BRICS countries was recently held at:

(A) South Africa (B) China

109. Indian Origin American physician Mr. Siddhartha Mukherjee won the prestigious Pulitzer prize 2011 for his acclaimed book:

(A) A visit from Goon Squad

(B) Madame white snake

(D) The emperor of all Maladies: a biography of cancer

110. Tembhli became the first AADHAR village in India. The village is located in the state of:

(A) Karnataka

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh

111. Who will host 2016 Olympic games?

(A) Tokyo (B) Madrid

112. First women speaker of the Lok-Sabha:

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Sucheta Kriplani

(D) Smt. Pratibha Patil

113. Tamil Nadu born Indian V. Ramakrishnan has been awarded Nobel prize (2009) in:

(A) Physics (B) Medicine

114. Match List–I with List–II.

List–I (Games) List–II (Dronacharya Awardee)

A. Boxing 1. Baldev Singh

B. Badminton 2. Jaidev Bisht

C. Wrestling 3. Satpal

D. Hockey 4. Pullela Gopichand

(A) A1, B4, C3, D2

(B) A2, B4, C3, D1

(D) A2, B4, C1, D3

115. Who was appointed by the union Government to head a newly created authority that will supervise the creation of a unique identification database of the country’s citizens:

(A) Mr. Sachin Pilot

(B) Mr. Narayan Murthy

(D) Mr. Nandan Nilekani

116. This year Nobel Prize has been awarded to British scientist Robert G Edwards for:

(A) The discovery of ghaphen in the field of physics

(B) The development of IVF therapy in the field of medicine

(D) The development of medicines to fight against AIDS

117. In May 2010 the Ministry of Environment & Forests, Government of India, notified this animal as the ‘National Aquatic Animal’. Name the animal:

(A) Ganges river dolphin

(B) Gangetic koi

(D) Mrigal

118. Where was the SAARC summit held on 28 2010?

(A) Kathmandu (Nepal)

(B) New Delhi (India)

(D) Thimphu (Bhutan)

119. In which of the Common Wealth Game event, held recently, history was created by Indians bagging all three–Gold, Silver and Bronze (1–2–3 podium sweep):

(A) Shooting (B) Archery

120. Name the radioactive substance detected in the scrap material (Radioactive scrap in Mayapuri in Delhi in 2010)

(A) Cobalt–61

(B) Cobalt–62

(D) Cobalt–63

121. Vedanta planned to mine in Niyamgiri hills of Orissa. Recently Union Government pronounced its verdict against it. The ore in question to be mined by Vedanta was related to the ore of:

(A) Copper

(B) Iron

D) None of these

122. Unique Identification Authority of India tasked to provide unique identification number to all bonafide citizens of India. This identity number got a new name Aadhar consisting of:

(A) 16 digits (B) 14 digits

123. In recently held Common Wealth Games, who won the Gold Medal for India in shooting event?

(A) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

(B) Abhinav Bindra

(D) Samaresh Jung

124. Mithali Raj is known in the field of:

(A) Cricket

(B) Shooting

(D) Archery

125. In August, 2010, British scientists issued an urgent warning against the spread of drug resistant bacteria. Which was widespread in India, Pakistan and Bangladesh. This super bug was named as:

(A) DNM

(B) MDP–1

(D) NDM–1

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Wednesday, 29 May 2013

Previous Year Question Paper - PM Cadre I Examination Date 29.05.2011 Question No 1 to 125

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